Can anybody explain to me the implications of Dodd-Frank and Volcker on UK investment banks?
As far as I can tell, JPMorgan's $2bil loss was as a result of trading operatings performed by its Chief Investment Office (which, despite what JPM say, is a hedge-fund in a bank i.e. a large prop desk) in its London office.
So even though JPM is subjected to Dodd-Frank in the states, does that mean it can do its prop trading out of London? I know there were plans of introducing a similar legislation in the UK, but I have to admit I don't know the current status of that - last I heard the tories were getting nervous at the idea.
As far as I can tell, JPMorgan's $2bil loss was as a result of trading operatings performed by its Chief Investment Office (which, despite what JPM say, is a hedge-fund in a bank i.e. a large prop desk) in its London office.
So even though JPM is subjected to Dodd-Frank in the states, does that mean it can do its prop trading out of London? I know there were plans of introducing a similar legislation in the UK, but I have to admit I don't know the current status of that - last I heard the tories were getting nervous at the idea.